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Jesus of Nazereth used this term to illustrate what he meant by sonship.

Had he wanted to let folks know that he was the child of a woman (Mary) then why didn't he say "Son of Woman?" It would have fit perfectly with the prophecy in Genesis (see Genesis 3:15). And, if he was actually making some kind of reference to that relationship (the mother/son relationship) why reinforce it so often when he'd already denounced it - saying his natural mom and family were of little importance (Matthew 12:48, 49)?

If he was talking about his birth through "natural processes", then either he was lying big time or the Gospel writers were. Starting a life from the womb of an untouched virgin is kinda unnatural today - and I'd be willing to bet it wasn't a daily occurrence 2000 years ago either. If you add on to that a conception through a "visit" from the Holy Spirit. . . well, I'm convinced we're not talking normal or natural here.

What Jesus was really trying to get across was:

"I came in to this world because of Man. "
"I have the nature securimage_show_medium.php and the characteristics of Man. "
"I breathe, eat, etc. like Man. "
"I resemble my parent(s). "

In the same light, Jesus used the Son of God to mean:

"I came in to this world because of God. Securimage_show_medium.php " (john 3:16)
"i have the nature and [securimage_show_medium.php] the characteristics of god. " (John 5:19-21)
"I breathe, eat securimage_show_medium.php, etc. like God. " (John 5:17, 19)
"I resemble my parent(s). " (John 14:9)

Are you a child of God? Then, let's be Perfect - the same way as our heavenly parent is perfect.